I had another look at Alfred Barnard's book - and it gets even more confusing!
He says that The Glenlivet is in Glenlivet. Hardly a controversial view.
But he also says "the Whisky... is pure Highland malt."
So - according to Mr B, The Glenlivet is from Glenlivet, but it is not a Glenlivet. It's not even a Speyside, but a Highland malt!
But it's worse - Alfred says Isle of Jura is "pure Highland malt". Eh?
And Talisker? "The make is Highland malt."
So what is going on? Should we accept the new classifications of whisky? Or revert to the Barnard system?
I'm more befuddled than ever